What is Gacek's explanation for cases that don't respond to Antivirals?

I’m curious here. For those dealing with hearing loss due to MD in one ear, would this rule out a viral component? I mean, why would the virus attack one ear and not the other?

 

I worked with Dr.Gacek (the son, the Dad is retired). He did not say much about…WHY he thought the anti virals weren’t working for me. He did acknowledge they aren’t working and recommended I move onto a surgical approach.

When it comes to WHY the
Antivirals stopped working, I think a good doctor will say they don’t know why. After all they don’t much about Menieres. So it’s all guessing.

 

The good doctors are the ones who tell you that they do not know why you have Meniere or how to cure it because that is the real explanation for this disease that science can give right now with certainty. Then there are the best doctors who, in addition to recognizing this, test things that could work based on theories and clinical studies that, although they do not guarantee a 100% cure, show certain information.

Finally, there are the bad doctors who do not tell you that you have Meniere or that they do not know how to cure you, they tell you to eat without salt, to avoid stress, to take a diuretic, etc. To save time and if the Meniere goes into remission at that perfect time, they will recommend injections or surgery, but always without telling you that they do not know what causes Meniere and that they do not know the cure.

For now I have five doctors, seven ENT specialists and an otoneurologist. Only one of them told me that if the MRI did not show anything it was Meniere and that there was no cure, that the sulpiride or diazepam only served to sedate my inner ears and that my brain does not receive bad signals that cause my vertigo, but that they were not a cure just a "reliever" to pass the attacks. So I've only had one good doctor, zero best doctors, and the rest bad doctors.

 

Epistemic humility is an invaluable, yet depressingly rare virtue.