Title says it all! Gacek definitively states that "Viruses (Herpes family) are the cause of the symptoms in MD". However, he admits his success rate with Antivirals is not 100% (at most, about 90% for control of vertigo). Has Gacek ever spoken about this? Are those 10% of failures migraine-associated MD cases, or due to other non-specified, non-viral causes? Circling back to Gacek's claim, do different viral strains/duration of symptoms potentially hinder an antiviral's effectiveness?